Asked by Anonymous
Hello I have a rather unique situation that I’m new to: my fiancé and I are intending to purchase her parents’ current HDB flat at a mutually agreed price lower than valuation. However, I’m not quite sure how it works out as I’ve gotten mixed answers. Would it be considered a transfer of ownership? Or would it be considered resale part share? And what considerations do I have to take note of? Any relevant advice would be much appreciated!
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