Asked by Anonymous
Hello, appreciate advice here please.
I have bought a resale flat and the seller and me have signed a so called mutual agreement for temporary extension of stay. Can i check, if the seller is a divorcee, does the wife and him have to both sign on the mutual agreement to make it legal binding? If only 1 party signs, is it right? Also, there is no witness for the agreement. So, can i say that the agreement is not valid due to the 2 reasons? Thanks.
I have bought a resale flat and the seller and me have signed a so called mutual agreement for temporary extension of stay. Can i check, if the seller is a divorcee, does the wife and him have to both sign on the mutual agreement to make it legal binding? If only 1 party signs, is it right? Also, there is no witness for the agreement. So, can i say that the agreement is not valid due to the 2 reasons? Thanks.
1920 views