Asked by Anonymous
Have a legal question. Wonder if someone can help me. I buy a property and put it 100% ownership under my wife’s name. Then we get a lawyer to draft a legal letter saying if we sell the property in future, the money will be spilt 50% each between me and my wife. So the question is: Since the property is 100% under my wife’s name, will the legal letter supercede the 100% ownership of my wife and ensure I will get 50% share of the sales proceeds when we sell the property in future?
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