Asked by NG
I wish to reference to these 2 Q&As with regard to buyer's commission to the seller's agent. This is on the assumption that the buyer himself/herself responded to the ad of the seller's agent. One reply was no need, the other reply indicates a need. The line is blur. I am rather confused. Hope that somebody can enlighten and make a clear statement. Thanks alot.
http://www.propertyguru.com.sg/question/7760/i-have-recently-purchased-a-pte-apartment-and-was-
http://www.propertyguru.com.sg/question/8065/hi-if-i-did-the-legwork-to-choose-and-select-the-p
http://www.propertyguru.com.sg/question/7760/i-have-recently-purchased-a-pte-apartment-and-was-
http://www.propertyguru.com.sg/question/8065/hi-if-i-did-the-legwork-to-choose-and-select-the-p
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