Asked by Anonymous
Dear Sir/Mdm,
I am in the midst of a divorce proceeding.
We owned a HDB flat.
Just want to know what is the difference in terms of monetary outlay between transfer of ownership and selling it in the resale market?
As the party who is retaining the flat, do i
only allow to use full cash to pay the other party or cpf monies is allowed for the transfer? How does it work?
My understanding is for transfer to take effect the party retaining the flat has to use cash only to pay back the outgoing party's share that he had put up for the flat plus his final percentage entitlement awarded by court.
Please enlighten me.
Thanks.
I am in the midst of a divorce proceeding.
We owned a HDB flat.
Just want to know what is the difference in terms of monetary outlay between transfer of ownership and selling it in the resale market?
As the party who is retaining the flat, do i
only allow to use full cash to pay the other party or cpf monies is allowed for the transfer? How does it work?
My understanding is for transfer to take effect the party retaining the flat has to use cash only to pay back the outgoing party's share that he had put up for the flat plus his final percentage entitlement awarded by court.
Please enlighten me.
Thanks.
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