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Hi,

I currently co-own a private property with my dad (50-50 co-ownership), which is currently fully financed by my dad. My fiance intends to buy over my dad's 50% share. Understand that a restructuring of loan needs to be done for this "ownership of transfer by part sale".
Some backgrd info:
Current property valued at ~ $1,000,000.
Bank loan amt my dad took ~ $450k

A couple of qns on the expenses involved for Part Sale:
1) Fees of 3% stamp duty of property value to be payable (prorated according to the percentage of shares bought - in this case, its $15,000?)

2) My fiance needs to take a bank loan for the 50% shares bought (ie. 50% of $1M = $500,000).
Since it is my fiance's first property purchase, he can get up to 80% loan. Thus, how is the repayment for this bank loan? Is it still the 20% downpayment (ie. $100k) involved? if yes, can this 20% be financed fully through CPF or it needs to be cash?

3) Any other expenses that i missed out?

Many thanks Gurus!
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2 Answers

As your question involves more technical aspect of financing, it is advisable to speak to a banker instead of a salesperson. If you need some numbers to call, feel free to approach me.

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Hi

Other expenses you may look out for is as below

1) Any Seller Stamp Duty incurred (depends on when property was bought)

2) Legal fees on this transfer

3) Any bank penalty payable on the release of current loan ( see if any lock in period for current loan )

Personally I suggest to explore if there is enough good reasons to do the change as there is a substantial cost involved and also SSD will kick in again for 4 years after the transfer.

The only benefit is that your fiance can use CPF to finance this property being the owner, other than that, rather than trust issues, don't see any benefit.

I believe there are better alternatives or solutions to this issue.

You may feel free to call me at 8-3333-222 for free consultation.

Thanks

Kah Seng

Associate Team Director

Propnex Realty Pte Ltd Read More
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