Asked by Anonymous
Hello I am a SC, about to marry a girl soon who is also SC. We both have parents who are foreigners.
I am thinking there are three options:
1. She and I each buy a resale HDB with our parents. When we get married, we each have a HDB under our name. Do we have to let go of one of the flat? what if the MOP is not met yet.
2. She and I get married first and we co-own a resale HDB after marriage. Then maybe 5 to 10 years down the road, we save enough to buy a private property, and apply for ABSD remission, while selling the old flat within 6 months. Is this ABSD remission success chance high?
3. We get married first, we get a resale flat but she is the main applicant but i am only occupier. 5-10 years later we save enough and I get a private property, and I am exempted from 7% ABSD right? (since technically i am just a occupier)
Am I right with all the assumptions and policies above? Seeking some opinion on which option is better to go (mostly minimizing ABSD)
I am thinking there are three options:
1. She and I each buy a resale HDB with our parents. When we get married, we each have a HDB under our name. Do we have to let go of one of the flat? what if the MOP is not met yet.
2. She and I get married first and we co-own a resale HDB after marriage. Then maybe 5 to 10 years down the road, we save enough to buy a private property, and apply for ABSD remission, while selling the old flat within 6 months. Is this ABSD remission success chance high?
3. We get married first, we get a resale flat but she is the main applicant but i am only occupier. 5-10 years later we save enough and I get a private property, and I am exempted from 7% ABSD right? (since technically i am just a occupier)
Am I right with all the assumptions and policies above? Seeking some opinion on which option is better to go (mostly minimizing ABSD)
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for your last part, if my wife get a resale hdb with me as the occupier, are we allow to take loan based on combined salary? or just her salary alone.