Asked by Anonymous
I currently have rented a room in a private estate under a master tenant. He is the one who entered into contract with the landlord while the rest of us are subtenants who occupy the other rooms. We do not have any agreement signed between ourselves and the master tenant. Everything is so called under gentleman agreement. Whoever leaves finds another replacement and the future tenants' deposit is the refund for the outgoing tenant.
Recently 2 of the tenants had to leave and they were unable to find a replacement, contractually the master tenant should be the one that bears the financial liability with the landlord. But instead the remaining of us were told to split the difference with the master tenant as he could not foot the sum herself on her own.
Is that even the right way and allowed? We all paid our deposits to the master tenant but other than a bank transaction and text messages and evidence, there isn't any tenancy agreement that could be used as a legally binding clause. We believe that our deposits have been used by the master tenant to offset the outstanding rents of the vacant rooms while they remain unoccupied.
Please advise on the best discourse for such situation.
Recently 2 of the tenants had to leave and they were unable to find a replacement, contractually the master tenant should be the one that bears the financial liability with the landlord. But instead the remaining of us were told to split the difference with the master tenant as he could not foot the sum herself on her own.
Is that even the right way and allowed? We all paid our deposits to the master tenant but other than a bank transaction and text messages and evidence, there isn't any tenancy agreement that could be used as a legally binding clause. We believe that our deposits have been used by the master tenant to offset the outstanding rents of the vacant rooms while they remain unoccupied.
Please advise on the best discourse for such situation.
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