Asked by Anonymous
Need clarification on the difference in the property tax payable for owner-occupied and non-owner-occupied residential properties.
If one owned 2 or more properties but DOES NOT RENT out any of these, and stay in just one of the main properties. Is the other or rest of the properties be still considered to be under the owner-occupied or non-owner occupied category? Which income tax bracket will be used to compute for the multiple residential properties owned?
If one owned 2 or more properties but DOES NOT RENT out any of these, and stay in just one of the main properties. Is the other or rest of the properties be still considered to be under the owner-occupied or non-owner occupied category? Which income tax bracket will be used to compute for the multiple residential properties owned?
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